Read this: Consent will also be invalidated if it was induced by the fraudulent conduct of another party, or by the direct or indirect "corruption" of its representative by another party to the treaty. Coercion of either a representative, or the state itself through the threat or use of force, if used to obtain the consent of that state to a treaty, will invalidate that consent.

What must  be true of coercion through the threat or use of force of a party to treaty for it to invalidate the state's consent to a treaty?
What is the answer? (If it cannot be answered, return "unanswerable")
used to obtain the consent of that state to a treaty